UPSC 2019 › Indian Polity

14 questions · 2019 · answers as per the UPSC key

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Topics: Judiciary (3)Parliament & State Legislatures (3)Constitutional Framework & Development (2)Social Justice & Vulnerable Sections (2)Federalism & Centre–State Relations (1)Fundamental Rights (1)Political Theory & Concepts (1)Union & State Executive (1)
UPSC 2019 · Q45 · Indian Polity › Constitutional Framework & Development · Save

Consider the following statements :

  1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
  2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b) 2 only
UPSC 2019 · Q46 · Indian Polity › Judiciary · Save

Consider the following statements :

  1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
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Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
UPSC 2019 · Q47 · Indian Polity › Constitutional Framework & Development · Save

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
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Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
UPSC 2019 · Q49 · Indian Polity › Parliament & State Legislatures · Save

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
  2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
  3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
UPSC 2019 · Q50 · Indian Polity › Federalism & Centre–State Relations · Save

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
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Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule
UPSC 2019 · Q51 · Indian Polity › Social Justice & Vulnerable Sections · Save

Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :

  1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
  2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
  3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
  4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
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Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
UPSC 2019 · Q52 · Indian Polity › Judiciary · Save

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
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Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
UPSC 2019 · Q53 · Indian Polity › Parliament & State Legislatures · Save

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements :

  1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
  2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
UPSC 2019 · Q56 · Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights · Save

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
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Answer: (b) Article 21
UPSC 2019 · Q66 · Indian Polity › Union & State Executive · Save

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
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Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
This question uses a table or figure from the original paper that is not reproduced here.
UPSC 2019 · Q69 · Indian Polity › Parliament & State Legislatures · Save

In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

  1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
  2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
  3. Finance Commission
  4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
  5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
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Answer: (a) 1 and 2
UPSC 2019 · Q76 · Indian Polity › Social Justice & Vulnerable Sections · Save

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

  1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
  2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
  3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (c) 3 only
UPSC 2019 · Q81 · Indian Polity › Judiciary · Save

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :

  1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
  2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC 2019 · Q85 · Indian Polity › Political Theory & Concepts · Save

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
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Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully