Indian Polity – UPSC Prelims PYQs

423 questions · 1995–2026 · answers as per the UPSC key · page 3 of 9

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Topics: Parliament & State Legislatures (68)Constitutional Framework & Development (58)Union & State Executive (50)Judiciary (46)Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (31)Local Government & Panchayati Raj (24)Elections & Electoral Reforms (23)Social Justice & Vulnerable Sections (23)Federalism & Centre–State Relations (21)Fundamental Rights (20)Directive Principles Of State Policy (16)Political Theory & Concepts (16)Public Finance & Finance Commission (13)Emergency Provisions (4)Fundamental Duties (4)Governance – Advisory/Executive Councils & Committees (1)Institutions & Organisations (1)International Relations & Treaties (1)National Symbols (1)Political Parties (1)Social Issues – Euthanasia & Bio-ethics (1)

Consider the following statements :

  1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
  2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
  3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Consider the following statements :

  1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
  2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
UPSC 2019 · Q46 · Indian Polity › Judiciary · Save

Consider the following statements :

  1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Show answer
Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
  2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
  3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Show answer
Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule

Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :

  1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
  2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
  3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
  4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
UPSC 2019 · Q52 · Indian Polity › Judiciary · Save

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Show answer
Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements :

  1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
  2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Show answer
Answer: (b) Article 21

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Show answer
Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
This question uses a table or figure from the original paper that is not reproduced here.

In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

  1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
  2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
  3. Finance Commission
  4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
  5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

  1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
  2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
  3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 3 only
UPSC 2019 · Q81 · Indian Polity › Judiciary · Save

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :

  1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
  2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Show answer
Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Consider the following statements :

  1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
  2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
  3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only

Consider the following statements :

  1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Show answer
Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Consider the following statements :

  1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Show answer
Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements :

  1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
  2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Show answer
Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Consider the following statements :

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?

  1. Limitation of powers
  2. Equality before law
  3. People’s responsibility to the Government
  4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Show answer
Answer: (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement ?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Show answer
Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :

  1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
Show answer
Answer: (a) Privileges

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution ?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Show answer
Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule ?

  1. Lord Cornwallis
  2. Alexander Read
  3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique ?

  1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
  2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
  3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Show answer
Answer: (b) Democratic decentralisation

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen ?

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?

(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Show answer
Answer: (b) Economic liberty

Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Show answer
Answer: (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Show answer
Answer: (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties ?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Show answer
Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following ?

(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Show answer
Answer: (a) The Preamble

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

  1. Adjournment motion
  2. Question hour
  3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
Show answer
Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

Consider the following statements :

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
Show answer
Answer: (c) Constitutional Right

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (d) 3 only
UPSC 2017 · Q92 · Indian Polity › Judiciary · Save

In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Show answer
Answer: (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State ?

  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India ?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Show answer
Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism ?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Show answer
Answer: (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.